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Contents

- 1 IGNOU BCOE 143 Solved Assignment 2022-23
- 2 1. Discuss capital asset pricing model.
- 3 2. A bond of Rs. 5,000 is redeemable after 10 years. The coupon rate of the bond is 12%. Find out the value of the bond if the required rate of return is 12%. The maturity of the bond is (a) 8 years (b) 10 years.
- 4 3. Explain briefly the long term sources of finance.
- 5 4. The cost of a project is Rs. 30,00,000 and its life is 5 years. The cash flows are given below:
- 6
- 7 The cost of capital is 10%. Find out the net present value of the project.
- 8 5. Explain the Walter’s Valuation Model.
- 9 Section-B
- 10 6. Explain the factors affecting cost of capital. 7. From the following data calculate degree of operating leverage of the firm ‘A’
- 11 8. Discuss M & M model of capital structure without taxes. 9. Explain the assumptions and limitations of Gordon model. 10. What is an operating cycle? Why is it important for the firm?
- 12 IGNOU BCOE 143 Solved Assignment 2022-23
- 13 GET IGNOU Handwritten Hardcopy , WhatsApp – 8130208920
- 14 11. What is financial leverage? How is it measured? 12. Explain Baumol’s model of cash management. 13. Explain ‘Credit standard’ and ‘credit period’. 14. What is ABC analysis?
- 15 Get IGNOU BCOE 143 Solved Assignment 2022-23 Download Free Now here from this website.
- 16
- 17 GUIDELINES FOR IGNOU Assignments 2022-23
- 18 IGNOU Assignment Front Page
- 19 BCOE 143 Handwritten Assignment 2022-23

## IGNOU BCOE 143 Solved Assignment 2022-23

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**Submission Date : **

**31st March 2033 (if enrolled in the July 2033 Session)****30th Sept, 2033 (if enrolled in the January 2033 session).**

Answer all the questions

**Section A**

## 1. Discuss capital asset pricing model.

In finance, the **capital asset pricing model** (**CAPM**) is a model used to determine a theoretically appropriate required rate of return of an asset, to make decisions about adding assets to a well-diversified portfolio.

The model takes into account the asset’s sensitivity to non-diversifiable risk (also known as systematic risk or market risk), often represented by the quantity beta (β) in the financial industry, as well as the expected return of the market and the expected return of a theoretical risk-free asset. CAPM assumes a particular form of utility functions (in which only first and second moments matter, that is risk is measured by variance, for example a quadratic utility) or alternatively asset returns whose probability distributions are completely described by the first two moments (for example, the normal distribution) and zero transaction costs (necessary for diversification to get rid of all idiosyncratic risk). Under these conditions, CAPM shows that the cost of equity capital is determined only by beta.^{[1]}^{[2]} Despite its failing numerous empirical tests,^{[3]} and the existence of more modern approaches to asset pricing and portfolio selection (such as arbitrage pricing theory and Merton’s portfolio problem), the CAPM still remains popular due to its simplicity and utility in a variety of situations.

**Inventors**

The CAPM was introduced by Jack Treynor (1961, 1962),^{[4]} William F. Sharpe (1964), John Lintner (1965a,b) and Jan Mossin (1966) independently, building on the earlier work of Harry Markowitz on diversification and modern portfolio theory. Sharpe, Markowitz and Merton Miller jointly received the 1990 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics for this contribution to the field of financial economics. Fischer Black (1972) developed another version of CAPM, called Black CAPM or zero-beta CAPM, that does not assume the existence of a riskless asset. This version was more robust against empirical testing and was influential in the widespread adoption of the CAPM.

**Formula**

The CAPM is a model for pricing an individual security or portfolio. For individual securities, we make use of the security market line (SML) and its relation to expected return and systematic risk (beta) to show how the market must price individual securities in relation to their security risk class. The SML enables us to calculate the reward-to-risk ratio for any security in relation to that of the overall market. Therefore, when the expected rate of return for any security is deflated by its beta coefficient, the reward-to-risk ratio for any individual security in the market is equal to the market reward-to-risk ratio, thus:

**Modified betas**

There has also been research into a mean-reverting beta often referred to as the adjusted beta, as well as the consumption beta. However, in empirical tests the traditional CAPM has been found to do as well as or outperform the modified beta models.

**Security market line**

The SML graphs the results from the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) formula. The *x*-axis represents the risk (beta), and the *y*-axis represents the expected return. The market risk premium is determined from the slope of the SML.

The relationship between β and required return is plotted on the *security market line* (SML), which shows expected return as a function of β. The intercept is the nominal risk-free rate available for the market, while the slope is the market premium, E(*R*_{m})− *R*_{f}. The security market line can be regarded as representing a single-factor model of the asset price, where β is the exposure to changes in the value of the Market. The equation of the SML is thus:

- {\displaystyle \mathrm {SML} :E(R_{i})=R_{f}+\beta _{i}(E(R_{M})-R_{f}).~}

It is a useful tool for determining if an asset being considered for a portfolio offers a reasonable expected return for its risk. Individual securities are plotted on the SML graph. If the security’s expected return versus risk is plotted above the SML, it is undervalued since the investor can expect a greater return for the inherent risk. And a security plotted below the SML is overvalued since the investor would be accepting less return for the amount of risk assumed.

**Asset-specific required return**

The CAPM returns the asset-appropriate required return or discount rate—i.e. the rate at which future cash flows produced by the asset should be discounted given that asset’s relative riskiness.

Betas exceeding one signify more than average “riskiness”; betas below one indicate lower than average. Thus, a more risky stock will have a higher beta and will be discounted at a higher rate; less sensitive stocks will have lower betas and be discounted at a lower rate. Given the accepted concave utility function, the CAPM is consistent with intuition—investors (should) require a higher return for holding a more risky asset.

Since beta reflects asset-specific sensitivity to non-diversifiable, i.e. market risk, the market as a whole, by definition, has a beta of one. Stock market indices are frequently used as local proxies for the market—and in that case (by definition) have a beta of one. An investor in a large, diversified portfolio (such as a mutual fund), therefore, expects performance in line with the market.

**Risk and diversification**

The risk of a portfolio comprises systematic risk, also known as undiversifiable risk, and unsystematic risk which is also known as idiosyncratic risk or diversifiable risk. Systematic risk refers to the risk common to all securities—i.e. market risk. Unsystematic risk is the risk associated with individual assets. Unsystematic risk can be diversified away to smaller levels by including a greater number of assets in the portfolio (specific risks “average out”). The same is not possible for systematic risk within one market. Depending on the market, a portfolio of approximately 30–40 securities in developed markets such as the UK or US will render the portfolio sufficiently diversified such that risk exposure is limited to systematic risk only. In developing markets a larger number is required, due to the higher asset volatilities.

A rational investor should not take on any diversifiable risk, as only non-diversifiable risks are rewarded within the scope of this model. Therefore, the required return on an asset, that is, the return that compensates for risk taken, must be linked to its riskiness in a portfolio context—i.e. its contribution to overall portfolio riskiness—as opposed to its “stand alone risk”. In the CAPM context, portfolio risk is represented by higher variance i.e. less predictability. In other words, the beta of the portfolio is the defining factor in rewarding the systematic exposure taken by an investor,.

## 2. A bond of Rs. 5,000 is redeemable after 10 years. The coupon rate of the bond is 12%. Find

out the value of the bond if the required rate of return is 12%. The maturity of the bond is (a)

8 years (b) 10 years.

## 3. Explain briefly the long term sources of finance.

## 4. The cost of a project is Rs. 30,00,000 and its life is 5 years. The cash flows are given below:

## The cost of capital is 10%. Find out the net present value of the project.

5. Explain the Walter’s Valuation Model.

**Section-B **

## 6. Explain the factors affecting cost of capital.

7. From the following data calculate degree of operating leverage of the firm ‘A’

8. Discuss M & M model of capital structure without taxes.

9. Explain the assumptions and limitations of Gordon model.

10. What is an operating cycle? Why is it important for the firm?

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**Section-C **

## 11. What is financial leverage? How is it measured?

12. Explain Baumol’s model of cash management.

13. Explain ‘Credit standard’ and ‘credit period’.

14. What is ABC analysis?

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